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How did Proto-Indo-Europeans (R* R1b/R1a) lose Mongoloid characteristics?

Some out-of-mainstream theories (Gio on Eurogenes) consider Y-R1b was born in western Eurasia (Italy according to him) and even maybe Y-P* could have been born in central-western Eurasia (Bulgary). I'm very reserved about this rarely shared opinion of course. That said, we cannot say too precisely where was born Y-R1* and Y-R* in Asia or eastern Eurasia. If I'm uptodate, we don't even know what road took the ancestors of Y-R* and Y-Q* to reach the northern latitudes of Siberia; East-Asia is'nt a better way than central Eurasia, IMO. All this is speculations todate, waiting for more info.
That said the observation about the birthdate of EDAR mutation is wellcome.
Besides, a lot of Amerindians (from partly ANE ancestors posterior to the first attested times of Y-R* and Y-R1* ANE bearers) show very few typical 'mongoloid' features, spite a mix with genuine East-Asians.
 
The term 'Mongoloid' is often abused or misused. Only 3% of Mongols carry R, while C reaches close to 60%. R1, a subclade of R*, is particularly common in Europe, while R2 is predominantly found in South Asia and with lower frequencies in Central Asia. R2a is also common among Middle Eastern Jews. R2 is highest among the Burusho people in Pakistan and their physical features are definitely not Mongoloid.

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How did Proto-Indo-Europeans (R* R1b/R1a) lose Mongoloid characteristics?

They didn't have to loose it, because they probably never had.

Mal'ta-boy (basically=ANE) was just a ~castizo.
Not only that, but he had no descendants, he is extinct, the same his branch.

The original Indoeuropeans were most likely +/- EHG.
And as for present knowledge, everything sugests that this is a one of the basic components.
 
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