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Ancient genomics support deep divergence between Eastern and Western Mediterranean Indo-European languages

qKvQcx0.png


A straight-line forms on the Yamnaya/Catacomb-Aegean/Balkan genetic continuum when looking at all Ancient Greek and Albanians leading up to the IA, and samples from Copper Age Balkan-Steppe interactions via Penske et al. 2023 samples. BA/IA Albanians also show a shift towards the Iron Gates HGs from this cline.
 
qKvQcx0.png


A straight-line forms on the Yamnaya/Catacomb-Aegean/Balkan genetic continuum when looking at all Ancient Greek and Albanians leading up to the IA, and samples from Copper Age Balkan-Steppe interactions via Penske et al. 2023 samples. BA/IA Albanians also show a shift towards the Iron Gates HGs from this cline.
Qe9UxhU.png
 
I see no reason why they should show any large differences to that of the Transalpine Gauls if they are in fact Celtic. The position you're referring to is one in which the genetic structure and origin of Lepontic speakers necessarily comes from migrations that occurred through Transalpine Gaul or other IA Celtic regions such as Germany, Switzerland or Austria. If one wishes to hold this position then one has to assume significant overlap or at least majority influence from said Transalpine populations. Even combining IA Celtic populations with further Northern Italian Neolithic input would not yield a modern Northern italian/IA Picene/EMA bardonecchia like result, but instead push you towards the modern Spaniard region of the west eurasian PCA. Ironically the populations that occupy this genetic structure in Italy were Etruscans and Latins, who we all know were not Celts, despite bearing what is looking to be a bell beaker origin.



I'm referring to ancient Northern Italians. Keeping Bardonecchia/Torino EMA in mind, any such genetic contributions within your scenario would've specifically had to have occurred in the Roman era which is not necessarily impossible but something I find doubtful - similar to the idea that Northern Italy was mass replaced by Roman era Balkan migrants. These ideas are basically historically undocumented speculation with little to support them right now.

Lets not conflate ideas such as "genetic Celts", "archaeological Celts", "linguistic Celts" etc. To most of the leading linguists and experts in Celtic studies it is not a question of if Leptonic/Cisalpine Celtic is Celtic, but rather if it is a separate Celtic language or part of a continental Celtic dialect continuum. And this in reference to pre 4th century BC "Galllic invasions", so essentially in a Golasecha culture setting. That the local population did not have a majorly CE genetic profile, similar like in Celtiberia, would be a sign of Celticisation of the indigenous peoples. I like the terms 'Hispano-Celts' or 'Celt-Iberians' to denote the mixed ancestry of these peoples and I think it would avoid a lot of confusion if we adapted similar naming conventions like 'Italic-Celts' or 'Celt-Italics' that designate the majority role of the indigenous component.

So nobody should expect to see, barring outliers, central European 'pure Celts' in N Italy or Iberia like one would find in eastern Gaul/SW Germany, where I consider all 3 foundations of IA Celtic-ness to be present, the aforementioned triad of genetics, archaeology and linguistic Celtic-ness. However it must be pointed out that such an IA Celtic profile is not necessarily what a Proto-Celtic profile would look like, but that's a topic for another thread.

Since when has it ever been necessary for Celtic speaking populations, or any other, to have the same or fairly similar genetic profile as "the linguistic donor" population? A small LBA contribution of 10-50% CE ancestry in a small portion of NW Italy which subsequently gets diluted over time to minimal levels could be more than enough to result in a linguistic shift. A similar model could be (has to be) plausible for the Iberian peninsula too with regards to Hispano-Celtic. Genetic continuity does not always equal linguistic continuity. In fact genetic continuity can often be accompanied by a lack of linguistic continuity.

It would help when referring to North Italians more specifically as eastern, central or western northern Italians as before the Roman period we talking about many different cultural and linguistic areas (NW Italy, eastern Alpine, central-east Po plain) that have roots going back to the BA, and IA northern Italy was a not monolithic ethnocultural place.

I accept your view that there was Balkan shift that resulted in todays northern Italian profile from Bardonecchia to Tyrol and beyond, but we cant yet necessarily date this to LBA-IA based of the Picene samples + post Roman samples alone and then come to conclusions. What is the pre-Balkan like N Italy profile that they are supposed to be shifted from? The Veneto Brion samples? The Polada samples? Olmo di Nogara samples? Verona samples?

Correct me if I am wrong but between the LBA and post Roman period afaik all we have are the Verona samples and 2 Olmo di Nogara samples. The majority of these do not seem LBA-IA Slovenia/Croatia like

The paper that this thread is dedicated to also has tonnes of Olmo di Nogara/NE Italy samples and my novice understanding is that a lot of them also seem very EEF similar to the existing Olmo di Nogara samples we have AND the East Alps EBA-MBA samples. So are we talking about 3 types of profiles in N Italy? 1) the heavy EEF Alpine profile, 2) the Etruscan-Latin (Tyrrhenian) profile, 3) Slovenia-Croatia LBA/IA profile or a mix of all 3 by the MIA? IIRC the Felsina paper said most of the samples from that paper also overlap with IA central Italy Etruscans/Latins etc.

I don't know if the Verona samples represent just a temporary transient CE shifted north italian population with ancestry components from multiple areas, but this paper and Cavazutti's papers always emphasise the possible co-role of indigenous local people contributing to the peopling/rise of Terramare alongside possible migrants from Pannonia. If such an indigenous contribution took place wouldn't it likely produce genetic profiles similar to Olmo di Nogara and the BA eastern Alps that we have already?

I could be wrong, but doesn't this paper model IA west Italian ancestry based on LBA source samples from the extreme NE of Italy (Veneto+Friulia), the samples of which have the highest amount of Balkan ancestry and are the ones shifted towards the Balkan cline on their PCA. They then use these 'source' samples' to convincingly model all IA Italians. If they can convincingly model IA Etruscans/Latins (who do not plot with Picenes) with these LBA Balkan enriched samples, then how can these LBA samples possibly be the source of the post Roman n Italian profile? wouldn't the post Roman n Italian profile come from a source(s) that can't be used to model IA Etruscans as well? Therefore, while a BA/LBA input or 'wave' from the Balkans might be good enough to explain in general the multiple disproportionate IA Italy profile(s), maybe an additional wave(s) might be needed to get to the post Roman n Italy profile in order to 'finish off' both the Alps BA-IA and Tyrrhenian BA-IA profiles

possible ideas, alone or in combination

1) Roman colonisation (genocide?) of western Cisalpine Gaul and the Alps. IIRC North east Italy (Cenomani, Veneti) were Roman allies and spared the violence that NW italy and the Alps experienced (Insubri, Apuani etc). An east to west colonisation by migrants from Emilia-Romagna/Veneto etc. In this scenario I consider that the Veneti, Romagna, eastern Lombardy will be genetically similar to the Picenes (Italo-Illyrian). Post conquest movements were probably peaceful and followed the road networks east-west.north-south

2) Eastern Celtic movements into Italy from the E Alps, SE Alps, Bohemia etc (some Boii, Taurisci, Carni) who may themselves have been Celticized descendants of Middle Danube Urnfield types, similar to Slovenia IA, Bezdanjača Cave LBA etc

3) Migrants and refugees from the Eastern Alps, Pannonia, Slovenia etc in the late Roman period fleeing (or being relocated) to northern Italy from the northern provinces that were being overrun by Germanic/Hun warlords and where the Roman civil, administrative and military system collapsed or was transferred to foederati, along with reduced or depopulation and de-urbanisation

4) moving the capitol to Mediolanum/Ravenna and undetected migration from the NW Balkans during the Empire?

5) limited impact of the Urnfield movements with a Slovenia/N Croatia LBA profile mainly affecting central and eastern N Italy, then later spreading west/north and/or additional population movements from Illyria and SE Italy (Iapygians etc) into N Italy

Based on the data so far for the eastern Alps, it seems to my novice mind that the heavy EEF Alpine profile was competing with the Tyrrhenian profile before the Balkan profile came as a 3rd party into the picture, and it would make more sense to me at least that Piemonte, Aosta, western Lombardy and Liguria were still in that conflict, with the Balkan profile initially confined more central and eastern N Italy as well as the Adriatic. My novice understanding of this paper is that it does seem to indicate that the Balkan ancestry appears in quite a few of the Olmo di Nogara/Friuli samples. Correct me if I am wrong however, but it does not seem to be the majority ancestry in a majority of the new samples.

We must also look at the ancestry profiles of those samples from Lano, Corsica and Migennes, France to compare

Its a shame that they did not create charts with clusters beyond sets 3 or 4. IIRC, in McColl's Celtic and Germanic papers they went as far as modelling samples up to Sets 6 or 7 for a much more detailed ancestry breakdown. Which is surprising, given that Hugh McColl's name is attached to this paper.
 
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The sam
Lets not conflate ideas such as "genetic Celts", "archaeological Celts", "linguistic Celts" etc. To most of the leading linguists and experts in Celtic studies it is not a question of if Leptonic/Cisalpine Celtic is Celtic, but rather if it is a separate Celtic language or part of a continental Celtic dialect continuum. And this in reference to pre 4th century BC "Galllic invasions", so essentially in a Golasecha culture setting. That the local population did not have a majorly CE genetic profile, similar like in Celtiberia, would be a sign of Celticisation of the indigenous peoples. I like the terms 'Hispano-Celts' or 'Celt-Iberians' to denote the mixed ancestry of these peoples and I think it would avoid a lot of confusion if we adapted similar naming conventions like 'Italic-Celts' or 'Celt-Italics' that designate the majority role of the indigenous component.

So nobody should expect to see, barring outliers, central European 'pure Celts' in N Italy or Iberia like one would find in eastern Gaul/SW Germany, where I consider all 3 foundations of IA Celtic-ness to be present, the aforementioned triad of genetics, archaeology and linguistic Celtic-ness. However it must be pointed out that such an IA Celtic profile is not necessarily what a Proto-Celtic profile would look like, but that's a topic for another thread.

Since when has it ever been necessary for Celtic speaking populations, or any other, to have the same or fairly similar genetic profile as "the linguistic donor" population? A small LBA contribution of 10-50% CE ancestry in a small portion of NW Italy which subsequently gets diluted over time to minimal levels could be more than enough to result in a linguistic shift. A similar model could be (has to be) plausible for the Iberian peninsula too with regards to Hispano-Celtic. Genetic continuity does not always equal linguistic continuity. In fact genetic continuity can often be accompanied by a lack of linguistic continuity.

It would help when referring to North Italians more specifically as eastern, central or western northern Italians as before the Roman period we talking about many different cultural and linguistic areas (NW Italy, eastern Alpine, central-east Po plain) that have roots going back to the BA, and IA northern Italy was a not monolithic ethnocultural place.

I accept your view that there was Balkan shift that resulted in todays northern Italian profile from Bardonecchia to Tyrol and beyond, but we cant yet necessarily date this to LBA-IA based of the Picene samples + post Roman samples alone and then come to conclusions. What is the pre-Balkan like N Italy profile that they are supposed to be shifted from? The Veneto Brion samples? The Polada samples? Olmo di Nogara samples? Verona samples?

Correct me if I am wrong but between the LBA and post Roman period afaik all we have are the Verona samples and 2 Olmo di Nogara samples. The majority of these do not seem LBA-IA Slovenia/Croatia like

The paper that this thread is dedicated to also has tonnes of Olmo di Nogara/NE Italy samples and my novice understanding is that a lot of them also seem very EEF similar to the existing Olmo di Nogara samples we have AND the East Alps EBA-MBA samples. So are we talking about 3 types of profiles in N Italy? 1) the heavy EEF Alpine profile, 2) the Etruscan-Latin (Tyrrhenian) profile, 3) Slovenia-Croatia LBA/IA profile or a mix of all 3 by the MIA? IIRC the Felsina paper said most of the samples from that paper also overlap with IA central Italy Etruscans/Latins etc.

I don't know if the Verona samples represent just a temporary transient CE shifted north italian population with ancestry components from multiple areas, but this paper and Cavazutti's papers always emphasise the possible co-role of indigenous local people contributing to the peopling/rise of Terramare alongside possible migrants from Pannonia. If such an indigenous contribution took place wouldn't it likely produce genetic profiles similar to Olmo di Nogara and the BA eastern Alps that we have already?

I could be wrong, but doesn't this paper model IA west Italian ancestry based on LBA source samples from the extreme NE of Italy (Veneto+Friulia), the samples of which have the highest amount of Balkan ancestry and are the ones shifted towards the Balkan cline on their PCA. They then use these 'source' samples' to convincingly model all IA Italians. If they can convincingly model IA Etruscans/Latins (who do not plot with Picenes) with these LBA Balkan enriched samples, then how can these LBA samples possibly be the source of the post Roman n Italian profile? wouldn't the post Roman n Italian profile come from a source(s) that can't be used to model IA Etruscans as well? Therefore, while a BA/LBA input or 'wave' from the Balkans might be good enough to explain in general the multiple disproportionate IA Italy profile(s), maybe an additional wave(s) might be needed to get to the post Roman n Italy profile in order to 'finish off' both the Alps BA-IA and Tyrrhenian BA-IA profiles

possible ideas, alone or in combination

1) Roman colonisation (genocide?) of western Cisalpine Gaul and the Alps. IIRC North east Italy (Cenomani, Veneti) were Roman allies and spared the violence that NW italy and the Alps experienced (Insubri, Apuani etc). An east to west colonisation by migrants from Emilia-Romagna/Veneto etc. In this scenario I consider that the Veneti, Romagna, eastern Lombardy will be genetically similar to the Picenes (Italo-Illyrian). Post conquest movements were probably peaceful and followed the road networks east-west.north-south

2) Eastern Celtic movements into Italy from the E Alps, SE Alps, Bohemia etc (some Boii, Taurisci, Carni) who may themselves have been Celticized descendants of Middle Danube Urnfield types, similar to Slovenia IA, Bezdanjača Cave LBA etc

3) Migrants and refugees from the Eastern Alps, Pannonia, Slovenia etc in the late Roman period fleeing (or being relocated) to northern Italy from the northern provinces that were being overrun by Germanic/Hun warlords and where the Roman civil, administrative and military system collapsed or was transferred to foederati, along with reduced or depopulation and de-urbanisation

4) moving the capitol to Mediolanum/Ravenna and undetected migration from the NW Balkans during the Empire?

5) limited impact of the Urnfield movements with a Slovenia/N Croatia LBA profile mainly affecting central and eastern N Italy, then later spreading west/north and/or additional population movements from Illyria and SE Italy (Iapygians etc) into N Italy

Based on the data so far for the eastern Alps, it seems to my novice mind that the heavy EEF Alpine profile was competing with the Tyrrhenian profile before the Balkan profile came as a 3rd party into the picture, and it would make more sense to me at least that Piemonte, Aosta, western Lombardy and Liguria were still in that conflict, with the Balkan profile initially confined more central and eastern N Italy as well as the Adriatic. My novice understanding of this paper is that it does seem to indicate that the Balkan ancestry appears in quite a few of the Olmo di Nogara/Friuli samples. Correct me if I am wrong however, but it does not seem to be the majority ancestry in a majority of the new samples.

We must also look at the ancestry profiles of those samples from Lano, Corsica and Migennes, France to compare

Its a shame that they did not create charts with clusters beyond sets 3 or 4. IIRC, in McColl's Celtic and Germanic papers they went as far as modelling samples up to Sets 6 or 7 for a much more detailed ancestry breakdown. Which is surprising, given that Hugh McColl's name is attached to this paper.
The samples from Northern Corsica are said to be similar to the Olmo di Nogara samples, so most of their ancestry should come from the EEF supposedly. They date to 1000 BC so they're 3 or 4 centuries more recent than the Olmo di Nogara samples. The North of Corsica was the part of the island that had been influenced the most by the Apennine culture earlier, and where no "torri" were built, unlike the South of the island which had more relations with Sardinia during the Middle Bronze Age around 1600-1400 BC or so, so it'd be interesting to see if there was a difference between the inhabitants of the North and the South of the island, and whether the Southerners were even more EEF-like.
 
We’ve known it for a while but now it’s official Armenian and Greek are directly linked to the Yamnaya culture while Italic and Celtic are Bell Beaker derived.
Technically, it's like this:
- The Balkanic language family (Greek, Armenian, Albanian, Phrygian etc) is linked to Yamnaya-related ancestry instead of CWC-related ancestry
- Italo-Celtic is linked to CWC-related ancestry (through BB or not) instead of Yamnaya-related ancestry
see Olander ed. 2022 also
 
According to Hackenstein 2024 Albanian sits between Greek and the rest of Nuclear IE (almost exclusively Corded-Ware and BB-related languages),

Albanian thus occupies an intermediate position between Greek and the rest of Nuclear IndoEuropean:

1 Anatolian
2 Tocharian
3a Greek
3b Albanian
4 Rest of Nuclear Indo-European


So, according to him Anatolian IE would split first from PIE, then Tocharian then we have Nuclear IE.

Within Nuclear IE we will have 3 branches: Greek/Armenian, Albanian, and rest of nuclear IE (Corded-Ware, Bell-Beaker).
 
So, according to him Anatolian IE would split first from PIE, then Tocharian then we have Nuclear IE.

Within Nuclear IE we will have 3 branches: Greek/Armenian, Albanian, and rest of nuclear IE (Corded-Ware, Bell-Beaker).
Anatolian splits first from Indo-Anatolian, there's no definite answer on Tocharian (it's only conventionally dated as an early split to match Afanasievo), Indo-Iranian could be an early split as well, then there's the CWC-related languages (Italic, Celtic, Germanic, Baltic, Slavic and other extinct languages; Indo-Iranian isn't a clade with any of these) and Yamnaya(?)-related language family of Balkanic (Greek, Armenian, Albanian, Phrygian etc), possibly with other extinct unrecorded languages.

There's a broad picture from linguistics but aDNA and computational methods will fill in the details. Don't forget that there was a time not too long ago that Anatolian was considered a non-IE language.
 
Lets not conflate ideas such as "genetic Celts", "archaeological Celts", "linguistic Celts" etc. To most of the leading linguists and experts in Celtic studies it is not a question of if Leptonic/Cisalpine Celtic is Celtic, but rather if it is a separate Celtic language or part of a continental Celtic dialect continuum. And this in reference to pre 4th century BC "Galllic invasions", so essentially in a Golasecha culture setting. That the local population did not have a majorly CE genetic profile, similar like in Celtiberia, would be a sign of Celticisation of the indigenous peoples. I like the terms 'Hispano-Celts' or 'Celt-Iberians' to denote the mixed ancestry of these peoples and I think it would avoid a lot of confusion if we adapted similar naming conventions like 'Italic-Celts' or 'Celt-Italics' that designate the majority role of the indigenous component.

So nobody should expect to see, barring outliers, central European 'pure Celts' in N Italy or Iberia like one would find in eastern Gaul/SW Germany, where I consider all 3 foundations of IA Celtic-ness to be present, the aforementioned triad of genetics, archaeology and linguistic Celtic-ness. However it must be pointed out that such an IA Celtic profile is not necessarily what a Proto-Celtic profile would look like, but that's a topic for another thread.

The leading linguists are reconstructing dead and sparsely ever recorded languages which only have fragments of extremely short texts to draw from and using their own inherent biases to extrapolate ideas of ethnic origin. I am less interested in such an extremely poor filtered and biased lens to interpret ethnicity and more interested in what the ancient sources have to say in tandem with the autosomal dna. The ancients along with their primary sources refer to the inhabitants of the Italian alps as blood relatives of the Etruscans. They were not Italo-Celts, Celts or Celts-Italics. They had names such as the Veneti, Leponti, Rhaeti etc. and their ethnic affiliation was contrasted, not conflated with celtic tribes and conflated instead with the Etruscans of central Italy. Attempts at relabeling them with such nonsense is historic ethno-revisionism and I reject this idea. There already did exist your idea and nomenclature of the mixed celto-liguri, but this was within France, not northern Italy and it was an atypical case of a very small tribe.

Since when has it ever been necessary for Celtic speaking populations, or any other, to have the same or fairly similar genetic profile as "the linguistic donor" population? A small LBA contribution of 10-50% CE ancestry in a small portion of NW Italy which subsequently gets diluted over time to minimal levels could be more than enough to result in a linguistic shift. A similar model could be (has to be) plausible for the Iberian peninsula too with regards to Hispano-Celtic. Genetic continuity does not always equal linguistic continuity. In fact genetic continuity can often be accompanied by a lack of linguistic continuity.

If you are going to argue that Northern Italians of any type are Celts then they should show the autosomal DNA of celts. One does not become "celtic" by having 10% celtic introgression, but instead mixed. If you want to argue that they were mixed then you need to provide an autosomal timeline showing a broad pattern of said mixture within the larger population (not just a handful of outliers that disappear with no affect to the previous population).

It would help when referring to North Italians more specifically as eastern, central or western northern Italians as before the Roman period we talking about many different cultural and linguistic areas (NW Italy, eastern Alpine, central-east Po plain) that have roots going back to the BA, and IA northern Italy was a not monolithic ethnocultural place.

I would rather refer to the Northern Italics by their documented tribes instead of geographies, but truth be told, but I have serious doubts that you will see much genetic differentiation between any of them so it's a bit of a moot point to me.

I accept your view that there was Balkan shift that resulted in todays northern Italian profile from Bardonecchia to Tyrol and beyond, but we cant yet necessarily date this to LBA-IA based of the Picene samples + post Roman samples alone and then come to conclusions. What is the pre-Balkan like N Italy profile that they are supposed to be shifted from? The Veneto Brion samples? The Polada samples? Olmo di Nogara samples? Verona samples?

The Picene samples are simply evidence not proof that the profile was in northern Italy. The same goes for the IA/BA samples of croatia and slovenia which are effectively identical in autosomal structure. I estimate that the profile arrived around the time of the LBA which is again about the time we see widespread material introgression and militarization synonymous with weaponry and material culture of Vatya from Hungary. The population of northern Italy also skyrockets during this period which further evidences the idea of a genetic replacement or mass shift of the prior population. The pre-balkan profile of N. Italy will likely appear like the brion samples along with the IA latin/etruscan samples we see. Somewhat further WHG and barcin shifted compared to moderns. Effectively a higher EEF/otzi-like element than moderns.


I don't know if the Verona samples represent just a temporary transient CE shifted north italian population with ancestry components from multiple areas, but this paper and Cavazutti's papers always emphasise the possible co-role of indigenous local people contributing to the peopling/rise of Terramare alongside possible migrants from Pannonia. If such an indigenous contribution took place wouldn't it likely produce genetic profiles similar to Olmo di Nogara and the BA eastern Alps that we have already?

The Verona samples, as I have been told, have a strong Celtic basis for material culture. They were non indigenous and have heavy transalpine ancestry - likely descended totally or largely from the 4th century invading population of Gauls. They are not going to be representative of locals.

I could be wrong, but doesn't this paper model IA west Italian ancestry based on LBA source samples from the extreme NE of Italy (Veneto+Friulia), the samples of which have the highest amount of Balkan ancestry and are the ones shifted towards the Balkan cline on their PCA.

There are no existing LBA samples for any part of northern Italy to my knowledge. I'm not even certain if we have LBA samples for Italy at all. Perhaps maybe one or two for Sicily. The LBA and IA is effectively a black hole as far as the vast majority of northern Italy goes. We do have IA data from Felsina which is of course at the southern edge of north Italy and they cluster the same as Central Italians of the iron age. If you see something that I'm missing here then I'd be happy to look at it.
 
If the origin of lepontic speakers is truly celtic as some linguists such as Lejuene have proposed then they should match their origin in Transalpine Gaul. If not then this will not be the case. You cannot have a celtic origin which has no commonality with the genetics of any other Gauls - such a genetic result demands that the genetic origin lie in a place other than that of the Celts.



I disagree and see this as improbable other than for specifically 4th century transalpine invaders. If we see a spectrum of Illyrian and Southern Gallic like DNA between east to west it would also necessitate that there was some unspoken mass expulsion or colonization event that affected the native tribes of only northwest Italy but not northeast. Not only is this not documented but the very idea of it seems very unlikely to me. Populations like the Insubres and Ligures were not expelled with the proper transalpine populations. Furthermore, we already have a good EMA sample from Bardonecchia and Torino which both average extraordinarily modern like results in comparison to anything French/Gallic. As memory serves there was precisely one outlier in both sample sets that could be construed as potentially French, with one or two that could be construed as southern or central Italian, with the rest looking stereotypically modern for the area.
BTW have we now ancient DNA of Golasecca culture?
 
Whatever shared innovations Armenian and Greek have derive from from the Budzhak culture, which is a different entity to Yamnaya. This of course means that the claims in this paper (notably Guus Kroonen's linguistic summary) are, like those of the Reich Lab/ Anthony collaborative, fallacious
Point taken, but haven't you heard that you can't argue with DNA or scientific papers?;)

When laypeople who are familiar with archeology, history, and admixture methods question the result or modeling of ancestry in a genetic study, they are labeled as anti-science or conspiratorial. Perhaps the previewed paper resolves these points, at least in the supplementaries.
 
this is historically nonsense, completely at odds with haplogroups, history and qpADM
The IBD_clustering admixture methodoogy used by the Allentoft Lab is garbage
They're probably trying to argue based on CWC-related admixture that seems mostly mediated by BB-related groups. There are samples in geographical Greek areas (including Logkas) that have it.
 
There is no such thing as "Greco-Armenian', only 'Greco-Phrygian'
Greco-Armenian is confirmed by linguistics now, in fact it's Balkanic with Greek, Armenian, Albanian, Phrygian, Thracian etc (Olander ed. 2022). You can't rebuke linguistics with genetics.
Proto-Greeks were already in the central Balkans by 2700 BC, and their early members are characterised by R1b-PF7562 and I2a-L701
Proto-Greek language differentiates from Greco-Phrygian at 2200-2000 BCE at the earliest. We do not know where the Yamnaya-related and the Anatolian-related influence in Mycenaeans (verified Greek speakers) comes from.

There aren't any testable arguments against this at the moment.
 
Perhaps the previewed paper resolves these points, at least in the supplementaries.
Ha I remember the Southern Arc papers, they did include different models in the supplementals and with better qpAdm fits. 100% chance they have run several rotating models but don't want to alienate Anthony yet, gotta have him on board for the citations and promotion. Anthony is the cash cow into the kurganist market for Harvard, no way they're driving him away. CLV was a compromise
 
Which is obviously nonsense to anybody with even a mild understanding of archaeogenetics
EDIT:
Yes, I completely agree. The proto-Greek language is unrelated to the BB-related/CWC-related geneflow found in the Balkans and Greece. You didn't understand what I said. There are two or three papers on this (actually could be be four, Ringbauer's IBD paper also includes it) but this doesn't mean that they read it, and simply make up a theory as to why it's there when the most likely explanation (population movement) is boring.
 
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proto-Greeks coming from Bell Beaker is obviously nonsense to anybody with even a mild understanding of archaeogenetics.


The chapter on Armenia was written by Olsen & Thorsø. Although they favour a Greco-Armenian node, they acknowledge -''The opposite stand was taken by Reference ClacksonClackson (1994: 199–200), who ended his investigation with the following negative conclusion: “The absence of any compelling explanation of a morphological development of either language suggests strongly that the languages did not form a sub-group.” Even the impressive number of lexical correspondences was toned down: allegedly, only five word-pairs might reflect a common agreement made jointly by Greek and Armenian. -And-
Most recently, Kim (2018) discarded most of the lexical correspondences as “general root cognations, not full word equations” and the notion of a Graeco-Armenian unity as an example of the “inertia of established scholarly opinion”.''
The shared similarities could arise from shared inheritences, convergent developments/ parallel contacts, and many other sociolinguistic events. That is why we need archaeogenetics to flesh out details.
Presenting your arguements as 'irrefutable' is kinda laughable and the idea of a singular 'Balkan IE node' comes across as diminishes the complex demographic & linguistic history of the Balkans.
EDIT:
I see your point, but this is what I wrote: "In fact it's Balkanic with Greek, Armenian, Albanian, Phrygian, Thracian etc". A.k.a. "in fact Greco-Armenian doesn't exist". A connection between Greek and Armenian is confirmed, but on a broader language family level (Balkanic). I didn't mean directly between Greek and Armenian (this contradicts linguistics actually, and also genetics).

Below is my initial comment because I remember what I meant and not my exact phrasing:

No surprise Greco-Armenian isn't real. It never was. Armenian and Greek come from a broader family of Balkanic, with Greek coming from Greco-Phrygian and before that Greco-Albanian, with Armenian being more far away. There's no contradiction with what I said.

It's a linguistic argument from various different papers (Heggarty also, then there's Max Planck too iirc) that is also supported by genetics (Yamnaya geneflow) with the alternative (BA Anatolia vector) being also in support of a single origin. There are no arguments against it as far as I know, just the typical "uhh we don't know for sure". Balkans aren't even particularly complex, the CWC and Yamnaya geneflows in them are easily distinghuishable, as is some minor BA Anatolia-like contribution especially in 2000 BCE or earlier, which is when most of the Balkanic languages have already separated. The most one can do is attribute it to different Yamnaya (or Anatolian in case of the alternative) groups, which is plausible since the languages themselves diverged and don't necessarily come from the same exact group, but they do come from a single group that spoke Balkanic.

Really, now that I think about it there isn't a single paper that attributes Greek or Armenian and the linguistic (sub)families they come from to any other origin, especially a separate origin. Olander's book addresses what you posted:

"In more recent times, a genealogical connection has been pleaded for by Olsen & Thorsø (Chapter 12) and Reference LamberterieLamberterie (1997; Reference Lamberterie2013). Skepticism has been voiced by Reference ClacksonClackson (1994) and, recently, Reference KimKim (2018). Indeed, there are no phonological isoglosses that must be distinctive innovations shared exclusively by Greek and Armenian, and what are probably the earliest phonological innovations of Armenian are generally not matched by Greek counterparts. Furthermore, shared morphological innovations cannot be demonstrated (Reference ClacksonClackson 1994: 60–87)."

"To conclude, I fully concur with Kim’s words (Reference Kim2018: 263)"

Immediately followed by the next chapter:
"Evidence for the Balkanic group is found at all levels, phonology, morphology and lexicon"

That's simply the most likely explanation, and aDNA supports it. Greco-Armenian never existed simply because there were several other languages inbetween but both branch off from the same clade, to the exclusion of CWC/BB-related & other languages, as other papers find too. I think that's simple enough. Ultimately "Greco-Armenian" is mostly used like "Indo-Tocharian" is used. It doesn't mean that Indo-Iranian and Tocharian shared a single family, but a nuclear origin (PIE/PIA/whatever).
 
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