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I would go for somewhere in the 5500 BCE-7000 BCE range. But this is a topic that needs more research. Another important point in light of the most recent genetics papers is that the language families that have the most in common with PIE (Uralic, Yukaghir, Turkic, Mongolic, Tungusic, ...) are...

One of the very fusional ways to form a present in IE is by plopping a *n?/*n in the middle of the root. This is known as the nasal infix present. For example PIE *leikʷ 'to leave' (~ Uralic *l?kti 'to depart') had a present *lin?kʷti/linkʷ?nti, which is reflected in Latin relinquō, relictus...

This is bullshit. Terms like analytical, isolating, fusional and agglutinating are very vague at best and misleading at worst. And those 'most linguists' that you cite are certainly aware of that. But when you do apply more precise definitions, like WALS does, you see that the Uralic languages...

I don't buy the Indo-Uralic Sredny Stog or CWC theories. We simply do not know what they spoke. But Iet's assume that the Indo-Uralic split-up was just before the time when the first Kurgan cultures (Khavalynsk and Samara) appeared south of the Volga-Kama area. That would be ~5500 BCE. The...

The writing style on that blog is very confusing indeed. But I do think that a Volga-Steppe connection for Indo-Uralic is plausible. There is enough commonality between IE and Uralic that many linguists assume that they must be related in some way. But most of these linguists assume that such a...